Part score to full score?
Date: January 6, 2011
A question came up in a high school theory/composition class that neither the instructor or I have the answer for. The question was "why do choral musicians typically work off a full/reduced score and instrumental musicians work off part scores?"
Clearly there is ample evidence that this practice was not always the case, but I don't seem to remember from my music history classes when the transition from part score to choral score fully took place, or more importantly, why this happened. I think for practical reasons it's clear why it happened in retrospect, but wondered if anyone with a fuller view of this transition might be willing to fill in some of the history here.